Is it appropriate to bill the I&D CPT 10060 when the provider did not actually make an "incision" as the wound was already open? See documentation below:

Knee examination does reveal a moderate amount of swelling in the prepatellar area and does not appear to have any intraarticular effusion. He does have a small open lesion in the front of the knee just below the tibial plateau just to the right of the midline. There is a significant amount of serosanguineous drainage expressed from this. Using forceps a mucus plug is removed and then there is a mild amount of purulent/serous fluid which is obtained from it then. Culture swab is obtained. Thank you inadvance for any clarification you can provide.

Another example would be an abscess that is unroofed with a 16 gauge needle and then expressed of matter.

 Thank you in advance for any clarification you can provider.